CardioNerds Academy members Drs. Maryam Barkhordarian and Natalie Tapaskar are joined by expert faculty Dr. Robert Mentz of Duke University to assess the following hypothetical case study related to heart failure:
Ms. Kay Lotsa is a 48-year-old woman with a history of CKD stage 2 (baseline creatinine ~1.2 mg/dL) & type 2 diabetes mellitus. She has recently noticed progressively reduced exercise tolerance, leg swelling, and trouble lying flat. This prompted a hospital admission with a new diagnosis of decompensated heart failure. A transthoracic echocardiogram reveals LVEF of 35%. Ms. Lotsa is diuresed to euvolemia, and she is started on carvedilol 25mg BID, sacubitril/valsartan 49-51mg BID, and empagliflozin 10mg daily, which she tolerates well. Her eGFR is at her baseline of 55 mL/min/1.73 m2 and serum potassium concentration is 3.9 mEq/L. Your team is anticipating she will be discharged home in the next one to two days and wants to start spironolactone. Which of the following is most important regarding her treatment with mineralocorticoid antagonists?
To provide an optimal response, the team reference Sections 7.3.3 and 7.3.6 of the 2022 ACC/AHA/HFSA Guideline for the Management of Heart Failure.
This podcast episode originally appeared on The CardioNerds.